Pass OMSB Certification OMSB_OEN exam [Dec 10, 2024] Updated 99 Questions
OMSB OMSB_OEN Actual Questions and 100% Cover Real Exam Questions
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NEW QUESTION # 51
The aim of outcome research in nursing is to:
- A. Assess and documents the effectiveness of health care services
- B. Analyze the cause and effect relationship based on nursing actions
- C. Focus on the perception and of nursing professional
- D. Explore and investigate nursing clinical interventions
Answer: A
Explanation:
Outcome research in nursing focuses on understanding the results of health care practices and interventions. It aims to evaluate how effective these practices are in improving patient outcomes. This type of research is crucial for ensuring that the care provided is evidence-based and leads to the best possible health results for patients.
For example, if a new wound care protocol is introduced, outcome research would measure whether patients heal faster or have fewer infections compared to the previous method. This helps in determining the effectiveness of the new protocol.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Babies born to mothers with diabetes mellitus should be thoroughly assessed for which of the following conditions?
- A. Developmental dysplasia of the hip
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. Polycystic kidney disease
- D. Congenital heart defects
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Diabetes Mellitus and Pregnancy:
* Mothers with diabetes mellitus, especially if poorly controlled, have a higher risk of having babies with congenital anomalies.
* Common Conditions in Infants:
* Congenital Heart Defects (CHDs):These are the most common congenital anomalies seen in babies born to mothers with diabetes. This includes conditions like ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, and transposition of the great arteries.
* Other Possible Conditions:Although cystic fibrosis, polycystic kidney disease, and
* developmental dysplasia of the hip can occur in newborns, they are not directly associated with maternal diabetes.
References:
* American Diabetes Association (ADA)
* Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
NEW QUESTION # 53
A nurse plans to provide morning care for a bedridden client.
What is the priority action that the nurse should consider before starting?
- A. Ensure that the client is at the side of the bed
- B. Remove the pillows
- C. Remove the bed sheets
- D. Ensure that the bed is locked
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Safety in Bedridden Patient Care:
* Ensuring patient safety is paramount before beginning any care activities.
* Priority Actions:
* Bed Locked:Prevents bed movement which could cause patient falls.
* Pillows and Bed Sheets:Secondary actions related to patient comfort and hygiene.
* Client Position:Important but ensuring bed stability is the first step for safety.
References:
* Joint Commission guidelines on patient safety
* Fundamentals of Nursing textbooks
NEW QUESTION # 54
A circulating nurse is caring for a patient who is undergoing to laparotomy under a general anesthesia in the Operating Room.
What is the PRIORITY nursing diagnosis the circulating nurse would include in the care plan?
- A. Risk for bleeding related to surgery
- B. Risk for injury related to positioning
- C. Risk for infection related to surgical incision
- D. Risk for anxiety related to surgery
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Role of Circulating Nurse: The circulating nurse manages the overall environment of the operating room, ensuring safety and coordination among the surgical team. They are responsible for maintaining patient safety, including correct positioning.
* Prioritizing Safety:
* Risk for anxiety: While relevant, managing anxiety is typically addressed preoperatively and postoperatively, not the immediate intraoperative period.
* Risk for bleeding: While bleeding is a concern, it is primarily monitored and managed by the surgical team.
* Risk for injury related to positioning: During surgery, improper positioning can lead to nerve damage, pressure sores, and musculoskeletal injuries. The circulating nurse must ensure that the
* patient is correctly positioned to avoid these injuries.
* Risk for infection: Preventing infection is crucial, but the sterile field and surgical techniques primarily address this risk.
Conclusion: The highest priority for the circulating nurse is to ensure the patient is correctly positioned to prevent any injury related to positioning, as this is a direct and immediate responsibility during the surgical procedure.References: Surgical nursing textbooks, NCLEX-RN review guides, AORN (Association of periOperative Registered Nurses) guidelines.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding abuse in elderly persons?
- A. Most cases of elder abuse are reported to the proper authorities
- B. Exploitation is the most common form of elder abuse
- C. Caregiver stress can lead to the abuse of older adult
- D. Health care providers are only mandated to report verified elder abuse
Answer: C
Explanation:
Caregiver stress is a significant factor that can lead to the abuse of older adults. Caring for elderly individuals, especially those with complex health needs, can be physically and emotionally demanding, leading to burnout and stress in caregivers. This stress can manifest as abusive behavior towards the elderly. Exploitation, while a form of elder abuse, is not the most common; physical and emotional abuse are more prevalent. Most cases of elder abuse go unreported, and health care providers are mandated to report suspected, not just verified, cases of elder abuse.
NEW QUESTION # 56
A nurse is preparing to give health education for a client on hemodialysis.
What instruction the nurse will include in the teaching plan regarding dietary restriction?
- A. Potassium intake is restricted to 3-4 g/kg
- B. Sodium intake is restricted to 4-5 g/kg
- C. Fluid intake is restricted to 2000 ml/day
- D. Protein intake is restricted to 1.2-1.3 g/kg
Answer: D
Explanation:
For clients on hemodialysis, protein intake is usually restricted to 1.2-1.3 g/kg of body weight to prevent the accumulation of waste products while still providing enough protein to maintain muscle mass and overall health. Sodium intake, fluid intake, and potassium intake are also important to monitor, but the specific restrictions for sodium and potassium vary based on individual needs and lab results. Fluid intake is typically individualized and may be more restrictive than 2000 ml/day.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following nursing role within the policy development core functions of public health could help to reduce the risk of obesity associated with a build environment?
- A. Connect the community to available resources to lose weight
- B. Encourage the community to walk instead of using transportation
- C. Support the implementation of taxes on sugary beverages
- D. Educate the community about the health consequences of obesity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Within the policy development core functions of public health, supporting the implementation of taxes on sugary beverages is a direct approach to reducing the risk of obesity. This policy measure is designed to decrease the consumption of sugary drinks, which are a significant contributor to obesity. By advocating for such policies, nurses can help create an environment that promotes healthier choices and reduces obesity rates.
Connecting the community to resources, encouraging walking, and educating about obesity are important but fall more under the roles of community education and resource facilitation rather than policy development.
NEW QUESTION # 58
A nursing instructor teaching a group of nursing students about the recommended diet for a patient with a myocardial infarction.
Which of the following points will be included in the teaching?
- A. High intake of red meat
- B. Low fat and cholesterol
- C. Low intake of dark chocolate
D Low protein and high carbohydrates
Answer: B
Explanation:
When teaching nursing students about the recommended diet for a patient with a myocardial infarction, it's crucial to emphasize a diet low in fat and cholesterol. This helps in reducing the risk of further cardiovascular complications.
* Low Fat and Cholesterol: Foods low in saturated fat and cholesterol are recommended to prevent the build-up of plaque in the arteries and reduce the risk of another heart attack.
* Avoiding Red Meat: High intake of red meat is discouraged because it is often high in saturated fat and cholesterol.
* Dark Chocolate Intake: While some dark chocolate in moderation can have health benefits due to its antioxidant properties, the emphasis should be on a balanced diet.
* Protein and Carbohydrates: Protein is essential for recovery, but the focus should be on lean sources.
Carbohydrates should come from whole grains and other healthy sources rather than simple sugars.
References:
* American Heart Association (AHA): Dietary Recommendations for Cardiovascular Health
* National Institutes of Health (NIH): Heart-Healthy Eating
NEW QUESTION # 59
A nurse is caring for a patient with HIV who manifest chronic diarrhea, anorexia, a history of oral candidiasis, and weight loss.
Which dietary instruction would be included in the teaching plan?
- A. Include unpasteurized dairy products in the diet
- B. Consume a high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet
- C. Follow a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet
- D. Eat three large meals per day
Answer: B
Explanation:
For a patient with HIV who is experiencing chronic diarrhea, anorexia, and weight loss, a high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet is recommended. This type of diet helps maintain muscle mass, provides energy, and supports overall nutritional status, which is critical for patients with HIV. Eating three large meals per day may not be practical due to anorexia and gastrointestinal symptoms; smaller, more frequent meals are often better tolerated. A low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet would not meet the nutritional needs, and unpasteurized dairy products pose a risk of foodborne infections.
NEW QUESTION # 60
A nurse is checking laboratory findings of a patient with Sickle Cell Disease (SCD).
Which of the following laboratory values would be MOSTLY seen in this disease?
- A. Low hematocrit level
- B. Low leucocyte level
- C. High reticulocyte level
- D. High platelet level
Answer: C
Explanation:
In patients with Sickle Cell Disease (SCD), a high reticulocyte level is commonly observed.
* High Platelet Level: This is not typically associated with SCD.
* Low Hematocrit Level: While common in SCD due to anemia, it is not as specific as reticulocyte count.
* Low Leucocyte Level: This is not characteristic of SCD.
* High Reticulocyte Level: Elevated reticulocyte count indicates increased red blood cell production in response to chronic hemolysis (breakdown of red blood cells) seen in SCD.
References:
* National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI): Sickle Cell Disease
* American Society of Hematology (ASH): Sickle Cell Disease and Reticulocyte Count
NEW QUESTION # 61
A nurse is caring for a patient with acute gallbladder inflammation.
The nurse understands that which of the following foods can help to reduce the incidence of acute episodes of gallbladder pain and cholecystitis?
- A. Scrambled eggs
- B. Rich dressings
- C. Boiled rice
- D. Fried chicken
Answer: C
Explanation:
For a patient with acute gallbladder inflammation (cholecystitis), it is important to avoid foods that can trigger gallbladder pain. Boiled rice is a bland, low-fat food that is less likely to cause gallbladder irritation. Fried chicken, rich dressings, and scrambled eggs (especially if cooked with butter or oil) are high in fat and can stimulate gallbladder contractions, leading to pain and worsening inflammation. Therefore, boiled rice is the most suitable option to help reduce the incidence of acute episodes of gallbladder pain.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A nurse is providing education to a new parent about the psychosocial development of the newborn.
Applying Erikson's psychosocial development theory, the nurse would BEST instruct the parents to:
- A. Provide and maintain comfortable environment for newborn
- B. Ignore and distract the newborn when crying
- C. Anticipate and plan for the newborn demands
- D. Observe and respond to the newborn signals of needs
Answer: D
Explanation:
Applying Erikson's psychosocial development theory, the nurse should instruct the parents to observe and respond to the newborn's signals of needs. According to Erikson, the first stage of psychosocial development is
"Trust vs. Mistrust," which occurs from birth to approximately 18 months.
* Trust vs. Mistrust: In this stage, infants learn to trust their caregivers when their needs for food, comfort, and affection are consistently met. If caregivers are responsive to the infant's needs, the infant develops a sense of trust and security.
* Ignoring and Distracting the Newborn: This approach may lead to feelings of mistrust as the infant's needs are not being adequately addressed.
* Anticipating and Planning for the Newborn's Demands: While planning is important, it is more crucial to be responsive to the infant's immediate signals.
* Providing a Comfortable Environment: This is beneficial but must be combined with responsive caregiving to establish trust.
References:
* Erikson, E. H. (1963). Childhood and Society.
* American Psychological Association (APA): Erikson's Stages of Psychosocial Development
NEW QUESTION # 63
A group of nurses conducting a systematic review to identify best practice evidence for hemodialysis in patient with anemia.
Which of the following should considered based on level of research evidence?
- A. Quasi-experimental studies
- B. Randomized control studies
- C. Non-experimental studies
- D. Case-control studies
Answer: B
Explanation:
Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are considered the highest level of evidence in research because they reduce bias and provide the most reliable results. When conducting a systematic review to identify best practice evidence for hemodialysis in patients with anemia, RCTs should be prioritized. These studies provide strong evidence on the efficacy of interventions. Case-control studies, non-experimentalstudies, and quasi-experimental studies provide valuable information but are considered lower levels of evidence compared to RCTs.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A nursing instructor provides a session to a group of nursing students about the importance of anion gap in an acid base imbalance.
Which of the following statements if made by the nursing student would indicate the understanding of the teaching?
- A. The normal anion gap value is 6-8 mEq/L
- B. Anion gap of > 12 indicates metabolic acidosis
- C. Anion gap is calculated to decide the dose of soda bicarbonate
- D. Anion gap of < 8 indicates metabolic alkalosis
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Understanding Anion Gap:
* The anion gap is a calculated value based on the concentrations of cations (positively charged ions) and anions (negatively charged ions) in the blood, used to identify the causes of metabolic acidosis.
* Normal and Abnormal Values:
* Normal Anion Gap:Typically ranges from 8-12 mEq/L, though some sources consider 6-12 mEq/L as normal.
* High Anion Gap (> 12):Indicates metabolic acidosis, often due to conditions like ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis, or ingestion of toxins.
* Low Anion Gap (< 8):Not typically associated with metabolic alkalosis; other conditions like hypoalbuminemia may cause it.
* Clinical Relevance:
* Anion gap helps clinicians determine the underlying cause of acid-base imbalances and guide appropriate treatment.
References:
* American Association for Clinical Chemistry (AACC)
* Mayo Clinic on Anion Gap
NEW QUESTION # 65
A nurse is preparing to infuse 500 ml of 0.9% sodium chloride intravenous (IV) solution over 4 hours. The drip factor is 15 drops/ml.
Which of the following values is the flow rate in drops/minute?
- A. 31 drops/minute
- B. 133 drops/minute
- C. 32 drops/minute
- D. 134 drops/minute
Answer: C
Explanation:
To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), use the formula:
Flow rate (gtt/min) = (Total volume (ml) × Drop factor (gtt/ml)) / Time (minutes) Given:
* Total volume = 500 ml
* Drop factor = 15 gtt/ml
* Time = 4 hours (240 minutes)
Flow rate (gtt/min) = (500 ml × 15 gtt/ml) / 240 minutes = 7500 gtt / 240 minutes = 31.25 gtt/min Rounded to the nearest whole number, the flow rate is 32 drops/minute.
NEW QUESTION # 66
A nurse is monitoring a patient with Cushing syndrome who suffers from recurrent fractures and bruising.
Which of the following is the BEST action the nurse would do?
- A. Establish protective environment
- B. Encourage high protein diet
- C. Advise for orthopedic clinic visit
- D. Review the patient's calcium level
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Cushing Syndrome Symptoms:
* Cushing syndrome is characterized by high levels of cortisol which can lead to brittle bones (osteoporosis), easy bruising, and muscle weakness.
* Best Nursing Actions:
* Review Calcium Level:Important but not the immediate priority to prevent fractures.
* Orthopedic Clinic Visit:Necessary for follow-up but not the immediate action.
* High Protein Diet:Important for muscle strength but secondary to immediate safety.
* Protective Environment:Preventing falls and injuries is the best immediate action to avoid further fractures and bruising. Ensuring the patient's environment is safe and free from hazards is essential.
References:
* Mayo Clinic guidelines on Cushing Syndrome
* American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists (AACE)
NEW QUESTION # 67
A nurse participated in the implementation phase of a national measles vaccination campaign.
Which of the following represents the role of the nurse in this phase?
- A. Reporting a vaccination rate to the Ministry of Health
- B. Identifying population at-risk
- C. Setting outreach strategies for unvaccinated
- D. Monitoring the vaccination rate and surveillance activities
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Implementation Phase in Vaccination Campaign:
* During the implementation phase, the focus is on executing the vaccination plan, ensuring coverage, and monitoring progress.
* Role of the Nurse:
* Identifying Population at-risk:Typically part of the planning phase.
* Setting Outreach Strategies:Also part of planning to ensure all populations are covered.
* Reporting Vaccination Rates:This is part of the evaluation phase.
* Monitoring Vaccination Rate and Surveillance:Involves actively overseeing the ongoing vaccination activities, ensuring proper documentation, and surveillance for adverse events or outbreaks, making it the correct answer.
References:
* World Health Organization (WHO) guidelines on Immunization
* Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) on Vaccine Implementation
NEW QUESTION # 68
A nurse is examining a 24-month-old child with hydrocephalus for the development of later signs of hydrocephalus.
Which of the following signs the nurse would find?
- A. Dilated scalp veins
- B. Bulging fontanels
- C. Separated sutures
- D. Frontal bossing
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a 24-month-old child with hydrocephalus, later signs of the condition include frontal bossing, which is the prominent, protruding forehead caused by the enlargement of the frontal bone. This is a characteristic feature of chronic hydrocephalus. Bulging fontanels, separated sutures, and dilated scalp veins are typically earlier signs of hydrocephalus seen in younger infants before the cranial sutures close. As the child ages, frontal bossing becomes more apparent due to prolonged intracranial pressure.
NEW QUESTION # 69
A client refuses to take an oral dose of Dulcolax (Bisacodyl tablets).
What is the nurse's BEST response?
- A. Report to the physician
- B. Have the client suck on ice chips for several minutes beforetakingthe medication
- C. Crush the medication and mix it with apple sauce
C Inform the patient that this medicationmust be taken twice a day
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Handling Medication Refusal:
* When a patient refuses medication, the nurse must assess the reason and ensure the patient's safety and adherence to treatment plans.
* Best Actions:
* Report to the Physician:Ensures the healthcare provider is aware and can make necessary adjustments or provide alternatives.
* Crushing Medication and Mixing:Bisacodyl tablets should not be crushed as it can alter the drug's effectiveness and increase side effects.
* Informing about Dosing:Not helpful if the patient is already refusing.
* Ice Chips:Not relevant to enhancing medication compliance.
References:
* American Nurses Association (ANA) on patient medication administration
* Pharmacology guidelines on Bisacodyl administration
NEW QUESTION # 70
A group of nurses conducted a community-based diabetes self-management program. The program includes blood glucose self-monitoring and self-administering insulin injection.
Which of the following would be the BEST method the nurse would implement?
- A. Group discussion method
- B. Teach back method
- C. Focus group method
- D. Audiovisual method
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Diabetes Self-Management Education:
* Effective education methods are essential to ensure patients understand and can manage their condition independently.
* Educational Methods:
* Audiovisual Method:Good for initial learning but not the best for confirming understanding.
* Teach Back Method:The most effective method where the patient repeats back the information, ensuring they understand and can perform tasks correctly.
* Focus Group and Group Discussion:Useful for sharing experiences but less effective for individual skill assessment.
References:
* American Diabetes Association (ADA) on Diabetes Education
* Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) on Health Literacy
NEW QUESTION # 71
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