View All 250-550 Actual Exam Questions Answers and Explanations for Free Oct-2022 [Q21-Q45]

View All 250-550 Actual Exam Questions Answers and Explanations for Free Oct-2022

The Most In-Demand Symantec 250-550 Pass Guaranteed Quiz 

Symantec 250-550 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Describe Advanced Machine Learning and how SES employs this protection to protect endpoints against unknown threats Describe how the Cyber Defense Manager is used to identify threats in an environment
Topic 2	Describe the tools and techniques included in SES to adapt security policies based upon threat detections Describe the steps that can be taken to remediate threats locally on an endpoint
Topic 3	Describe the network requirements needed for connecting endpoints to the cloud management platform Describe how to utilize console data to identify and endpoints security status
Topic 4	Describe false positives, their impact, and how SES can be used to mitigate them Describe how SES can be used to protect endpoints against zero-day attacks
Topic 5	Describe threat artifacts and the best practices to follow after a major endpoint security event Describe LiveUpdate functionality and configuration options
Topic 6	Describe the SES policy and device groups and how they are used Describe the various types of threats that threaten endpoint devices
Topic 7	Describe the SES system requirements and supported operating systems Describe the account access and authentication methods available in SES
Topic 8	Describe device control and how SES can be used to control device access Describe the requirements and process for SEPM integration with the Cyber Defense Manager platform used in SES
Topic 9	Describe the various methods SES uses to identify unmanaged endpoints Describe various Memory Exploit Mitigation techniques and how SES protects against them
Topic 10	Describe how to use the SES management console to configure administrative reports Describe SES content update types and how they are distributed to endpoints
Topic 11	Describe IPS and how it is used in detecting and preventing unwanted network traffic Describe the client communication model and how to verify client connectivity

 

NEW QUESTION 21
Which statement best defines Machine Learning?

• A. A program that teams from observing other programs.
• B. A program that needs user input to perform a task.
• C. A program that learns from experience to optimize the output of a task.
• D. A program that require data to perform a task.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 22
In which phase of MITRE framework would attackers exploit faults in software to directly tamper with system memory?

• A. Defense Evasion
• B. Execution
• C. Exfiltration
• D. Discovery

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 23
Which framework, open and available to any administrator, is utilized to categorize adversarial tactics and for each phase of a cyber attack?

• A. MITRE ATTACK MATRIX
• B. MITRE ADV&NCE
• C. MITRE RESPONSE
• D. MITRE ATT&CK

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 24
Which report template type should an administrator utilize to create a daily summary of network threats detected?

• A. Access Violation Report
• B. Intrusion Prevention Report
• C. Blocked Threats Report
• D. Network Risk Report

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 25
What version number is assigned to a duplicated policy?

• A. The original policy's version numb
• B. The original policy's number plus one
• C. One
• D. Zero

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 26
Which security threat uses malicious code to destroy evidence, break systems, or encrypt data?

• A. Persistence
• B. Impact
• C. Discovery
• D. Execution

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 27
Which option should an administrator utilize to temporarily or permanently block a file?

• A. Delete
• B. Blacklist
• C. Encrypt
• D. Hide

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 28
Which Security Control dashboard widget should an administrator utilize to access detailed areas for a given security control ?

• A. More Info
• B. Quick Links
• C. Learn More
• D. Latest Tasks

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 29
Which SES advanced feature detects malware by consulting a training model composed of known good and known bad fries?

• A. Signatures
• B. Artificial Intelligence
• C. Reputation
• D. Advanced Machine Learning

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 30
What must an administrator check prior to enrolling an on-prem SEPM infrastructure into the cloud?

• A. Clients are running SEP 14.2 or later
• B. Clients are running SEP 12-6 or later
• C. Clients are running SEP 14.0.1 or late
• D. Clients are running SEP 14.1.0 or later

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 31
Why would an administrator choose the Server-optimized installation option when creating an installation package?

• A. To limit the Intrusion Prevention policy to use server-only signatures.
• B. To reduce the SES client's using resources that are required for other server-specific processes.
• C. To add the Server-optimized Firewall policy
• D. To add the SES client's Optimize Memory setting to the default server installation.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 32
What is the primary issue pertaining to managing roaming users while utilizing an on-premise solution?

• A. The endpoint is more exposed to threats
• B. The endpoint is missing timely policy update
• C. The endpoint is absent of the management console
• D. The endpoint fails to receive content update

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 33
Which dashboard should an administrator access to view the current health of the environment?

• A. The Device Integrity Dashboard
• B. The Antimalware Dashboard
• C. The Security Control Dashboard
• D. The SES Dashboard

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 34
Which Antimalware technology is used after all local resources have been exhausted?

• A. ITCS
• B. Emulator
• C. Sapient
• D. Reputation

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 35
What is the frequency of feature updates with SES and the Integrated Cyber Defense Manager (ICDm)

• A. Bi-monthly
• B. Monthly
• C. Weekly
• D. Quarterly

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 36
An administrator is evaluating an organization's computers for an upcoming SES deployment. Which computer meets the pre-requisites for the SES client?

• A. A computer running Mac OS X 10.8 with 500 MB of disk space, 4 GB of RAM, and an Intel Core 2 Duo 64-bit processor
• B. A computer running Mac OS X 10.14 with 400 MB of disk space, 4 GB of RAM, and an Intel Core 2 Duo 64-bit processor
• C. A computer running Windows 8 with 380 MB of disk space, 2 GB of RAM, and a 2.8 GHz Intel Pentium 4 processor
• D. A computer running Windows 10 with 400 MB of disk space, 2 GB of RAM, and a 2.4 GHz Intel Pentium 4 processor

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 37
Which Anti-malware technology should an administrator utilize to expose the malicious nature of a file created with a custom packet?

• A. Sandbox
• B. Emulator
• C. SONAR
• D. Reputation

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 38
Which default role has the most limited permission in the Integrated Cyber Defense Manager?

• A. Restricted Administrator
• B. Server Administrator
• C. Endpoint Console Domain Administrator
• D. Limited Administrator

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 39
Wh.ch Firewall rule components should an administrator configure to block facebook.com use during business hours?

• A. Action, Application, and Schedule
• B. Action, Hosts(s), and Schedule
• C. Application, Host(s), and Network Service
• D. Host(s), Network Interface, and Network Service

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 40
An endpoint fails to retrieve content updates.
Which URL should an administrator test in a browser to determine if the issue is network related?

• A. https://update.symantec.com/livetri.zip
• B. https://spocsymantec.com/livetri.zip
• C. https://liveupdate.symantec,com/livetri.zi
• D. http://update.symantec.com/livetri.zip

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 41
After editing and saving a policy, an administrator is prompted with the option to apply the edited policy to any assigned device groups.
What happens to the new version of the policy if the administrator declines the option to apply it?

• A. The new version of the policy is deleted
• B. The policy display is returned to edit mode
• C. An unassigned version of the policy is created
• D. The new version of the policy is added to the "in progress" list

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 42
Which security control is complementary to IPS, providing a second layer of protection against network attacks?

• A. Firewall
• B. Antimalware
• C. Host Integrity
• D. Network Protection

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 43
An administrator must create a custom role in ICDm.
Which area of the management console is able to have access restricted or granted?

• A. Custom Dashboard Creation
• B. Hybrid device management
• C. Agent deployment
• D. Policy Management

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 44
Which device page should an administrator view to track the progress of an issued device command?

• A. Command Status
• B. Recent Activity
• C. Command History
• D. Activity Update

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 45
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